ASNT NDT Level III Ultrasonic Testing (UT) Practice Quiz

ASNT NDT Level III Ultrasonic Testing (UT) Practice Quiz

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ASNT NDT Level III Ultrasonic Testing (UT) Practice Quiz – Exam Level Difficulty

1. When a longitudinal wave is incident from a medium with lower acoustic velocity (V1) to one with higher velocity (V2) at an angle below the first critical angle, the refracted angle (θ2) according to Snell’s Law will be:

2. The first critical angle in angle beam UT is defined as the incident angle at which:

3. The spreading of an ultrasonic beam as it propagates from the transducer, primarily due to diffraction effects, is termed:

4. The near field (Fresnel zone) length N for a circular transducer is approximated by which formula, where D is diameter and λ is wavelength?

5. Acoustic impedance (Z) of a material, critical for calculating reflection coefficients at interfaces, is defined as the product of:

6. In coarse-grained materials such as cast stainless steel, the dominant contributor to ultrasonic attenuation is:

7. In the far field (Fraunhofer zone) of an ultrasonic beam, the sound intensity primarily decreases due to:

8. The calculation of the refracted shear wave angle in immersion testing uses Snell’s Law, which relates:

9. The key distinction in particle displacement between longitudinal and shear waves is that in longitudinal waves, displacement is:

10. Ultrasonic wavelength (λ) is inversely proportional to frequency (f), meaning higher frequency transducers are selected primarily to improve:

11. Surface (Rayleigh) waves propagate at a velocity approximately equal to:

12. The ultrasonic system’s capacity to separate two reflectors at similar depths but slightly different lateral positions is known as:

13. If the acoustic impedance mismatch between two media is zero (Z1 = Z2), the resulting wave behavior at the interface is:

14. The V-path configuration in dual-element transducers is designed primarily to:

15. Instrument linearity in UT encompasses verification of both amplitude response and time base accuracy to ensure:

16. For area-amplitude calibration using DAC, the reference reflectors must be:

17. The purpose of conducting a transducer beam profile assessment per ASTM E1065 is to determine:

18. Per ASTM E317 for evaluating UT instrument performance, the acceptable tolerance for vertical linearity is:

19. In the 6 dB drop method for flaw sizing, the flaw boundary is defined at the position where the signal amplitude falls to:

20. The calibration block most suitable for verifying the exit point and effective angle of an angle beam transducer is:

21. For detecting hydrogen-induced cracking (HIC) in pressure vessels, the most effective UT technique recommended by API 579 is:

22. When establishing a DAC curve for weld inspection, the Level III must verify the instrument’s:

23. The tandem technique in UT weld inspection is optimized for detecting:

24. The DGS (Distance Gain Size) method evaluates flaw size by comparing the echo amplitude to that of:

25. The primary consideration when adjusting the pulse repetition frequency (PRF) in UT is to:

26. For UT of welds in pressure vessels, the acceptance criteria are primarily specified in:

27. ASME Section V Article 4 mandates scanning sensitivity verification at least:

28. In TOFD, flaw height is determined from the time-of-flight difference between:

29. For long-range corrosion screening in thin-walled pipes, the optimal wave mode is:

30. ASME Section XI for nuclear in-service inspection requires flaw sizing accuracy demonstrated by:

31. Lateral resolution in UT is most directly influenced by:

32. To accurately locate a flaw’s depth in angle beam UT, the Level III must ensure calibration includes the correct velocity for:

33. In PAUT, focal laws are programmed to adjust element delays for controlling:

34. A major challenge in immersion testing of thick components using water as couplant is:

35. For high-temperature UT inspections (>150°C), the Level III must compensate for temperature effects on:

36. Acoustic emission (AE) monitoring is best suited for detecting:

37. The damping material in a UT transducer primarily influences:

38. For accurate sizing using tip diffraction methods (e.g., TOFD or satellite pulse), the optimal beam incidence for maximum diffraction amplitude from the flaw tip is:

39. To enhance lateral resolution in the far field during UT inspections, the Level III should specify a transducer with:

40. The second critical angle occurs when the incident angle causes the:

41. Selecting a higher frequency transducer primarily enhances:

42. ASME Section V Article 4 requires that couplant be applied to ensure:

43. To verify horizontal linearity (time base) of a UT instrument, the Level III should use:

44. For UT in coarse-grained austenitic stainless steel, the Level III should specify a transducer frequency that is:

45. If the near field length N of a 5 MHz, 0.5 inch diameter probe is X inches, doubling the frequency to 10 MHz (same diameter) changes N to:

46. Calibration blocks for UT must match the test piece in terms of:

47. The AWS D1.1 code for structural steel welds primarily employs which UT evaluation method?

48. Time Corrected Gain (TCG) differs from DAC in that TCG:

49. The use of a delay line in straight beam contact testing is primarily to:

50. For detecting lamellar tears (parallel to the plate surface) in thick sections, the optimal transducer configuration is: